General Practice Exam 35 Questions, valid until June 30th, 2015

The Genesee County Radio Club Holds VE Test Sessions on the
3rd Saturday of each month (except for May) at 9:30am
Baker College off Bristol Road in Flint, MI

General Schematic

Answers are at bottom of page...

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Question #1
G1A11
Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?
A. 28.020 MHz
B. 28.350 MHz
C. 28.550 MHz
D. All of these choices are correct


Question #2
G1B04
Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?
A. The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
B. The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies
C. The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
D. All of these choices are correct


Question #3
G1C06
Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on 1.8 MHz band?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts PEP output
C. 1200 watts PEP output
D. 1500 watts PEP output


Question #4
G1D09
How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?
A. 30 days
B. 180 days
C. 365 days
D. For as long as your current license is valid


Question #5
G1E02
When may a 10 meter repeater retransmit the 2 meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?
A. Under no circumstances
B. Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C. Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
D. Only if the 10 meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license


Question #6
G2A10
Which of the following statements is true of SSB VOX operation?
A. The received signal is more natural sounding
B. VOX allows "hands free" operation
C. Frequency spectrum is conserved
D. Provides more power output


Question #7
G2B08
What is the “DX window” in a voluntary band plan?
A. A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
B. An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions on that band segment
C. An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
D. A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only


Question #8
G2C08
What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?
A. SK
B. BK
C. AR
D. KN


Question #9
G2D09
What information is traditionally contained in a station log?
A. Date and time of contact
B. Band and/or frequency of the contact
C. Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
D. All of these choices are correct


Question #10
G2E03
What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?
A. Directory
B. Preamble
C. Header
D. Footer


Question #11
G3A11
Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?
A. 8 minutes
B. 40 hours
C. 28 days
D. 11 years


Question #12
G3B07
What does LUF stand for?
A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B. The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
C. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D. The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period


Question #13
G3C09
What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?
A. Faraday rotation
B. Scatter
C. Sporadic-E skip
D. Short-path skip


Question #14
G4A13
What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?
A. To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
B. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
D. To slow down received CW signals for better copy


Question #15
G4B04
What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
A. The local oscillator of the transmitter
B. An external RF oscillator
C. The transmitter balanced mixer output
D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter


Question #16
G4C10
What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?
A. You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
B. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station


Question #17
G4D04
What does an S meter measure?
A. Conductance
B. Impedance
C. Received signal strength
D. Transmitter power output


Question #18
G4E09
What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a modern, well-illuminated photovoltaic cell?
A. 0.02 VDC
B. 0.5 VDC
C. 0.2 VDC
D. 1.38 VDC


Question #19
G5A09
What unit is used to measure reactance?
A. Farad
B. Ohm
C. Ampere
D. Siemens


Question #20
G5B07
Which value of an AC signal results in the same power dissipation as a DC voltage of the same value?
A. The peak-to-peak value
B. The peak value
C. The RMS value
D. The reciprocal of the RMS value


Question #21
G5C13
Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
A. An inductor in series
B. A resistor in series
C. A capacitor in parallel
D. A capacitor in series


Question #22
G6A13
What is an effect of inter-turn capacitance in an inductor?
A. The magnetic field may become inverted
B. The inductor may become self resonant at some frequencies
C. The permeability will increase
D. The voltage rating may be exceeded


Question #23
G6B07
What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?
A. Its saturation and cut-off regions
B. Its active region (between the cut-off and saturation regions)
C. Its peak and valley current points
D. Its enhancement and deletion modes


Question #24
G6C06
Which of the following describes an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
A. Digital
B. MMIC
C. Programmable Logic
D. Analog


Question #25
G7A05
What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?
A. 90 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 270 degrees
D. 360 degrees


Question #26
G7B12
Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class AB
D. Class C


Question #27
G7C07
What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?
A. RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
B. RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
C. HF oscillator, mixer, detector
D. HF oscillator, pre-scaler, audio amplifier


Question #28
G8A01
What is the name of the process that changes the envelope of an RF wave to carry information?
A. Phase modulation
B. Frequency modulation
C. Spread spectrum modulation
D. Amplitude modulation


Question #29
G8B02
If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?
A. Quadrature noise
B. Image response
C. Mixer interference
D. Intermediate interference


Question #30
G9A09
What standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 200-ohm impedance?
A. 4:1
B. 1:4
C. 2:1
D. 1:2


Question #31
G9B03
What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping?
A. It decreases
B. It increases
C. It stays the same
D. It reaches a maximum at an angle of 45 degrees


Question #32
G9C06
Which of the following is a reason why a Yagi antenna is often used for radio communications on the 20 meter band?
A. It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal plane
B. It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a dipole or vertical antenna
C. It helps reduce interference from other stations to the side or behind the antenna
D. It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the HF bands


Question #33
G9D03
At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?
A. As close to one-half wave as possible
B. As close to one wavelength as possible
C. Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
D. Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength


Question #34
G0A10
What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?
A. Change from horizontal polarization to vertical polarization
B. Change from horizontal polarization to circular polarization
C. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
D. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction


Question #35
G0B07
Which of the following should be observed for safety when climbing on a tower using a safety belt or harness?
A. Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight
B. Always attach the belt safety hook to the belt D-ring with the hook opening away from the tower
C. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring
D. Make sure that your belt is grounded at all times


********************Answer Key for your Test*******************

Question #1
G1A11 - (D)
Question #2
G1B04 - (A)
Question #3
G1C06 - (D)
Question #4
G1D09 - (C)
Question #5
G1E02 - (D)
Question #6
G2A10 - (B)
Question #7
G2B08 - (A)
Question #8
G2C08 - (C)
Question #9
G2D09 - (D)
Question #10
G2E03 - (C)
Question #11
G3A11 - (D)
Question #12
G3B07 - (A)
Question #13
G3C09 - (B)
Question #14
G4A13 - (A)
Question #15
G4B04 - (D)
Question #16
G4C10 - (A)
Question #17
G4D04 - (C)
Question #18
G4E09 - (B)
Question #19
G5A09 - (B)
Question #20
G5B07 - (C)
Question #21
G5C13 - (C)
Question #22
G6A13 - (B)
Question #23
G6B07 - (A)
Question #24
G6C06 - (D)
Question #25
G7A05 - (B)
Question #26
G7B12 - (D)
Question #27
G7C07 - (C)
Question #28
G8A01 - (D)
Question #29
G8B02 - (B)
Question #30
G9A09 - (A)
Question #31
G9B03 - (B)
Question #32
G9C06 - (C)
Question #33
G9D03 - (D)
Question #34
G0A10 - (D)
Question #35
G0B07 - (B)