General Practice Exam 35 Questions, valid until June 30th, 2015

The Genesee County Radio Club Holds VE Test Sessions on the
3rd Saturday of each month (except for May) at 9:30am
Baker College off Bristol Road in Flint, MI

General Schematic

Answers are at bottom of page...

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Question #1
Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?
A. 28.020 MHz
B. 28.350 MHz
C. 28.550 MHz
D. All of these choices are correct

Question #2
When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?
A. Review FCC Part 97 Rules regarding permitted frequencies and emissions?
B. Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community.
C. Before transmitting, listen to avoid interfering with ongoing communication
D. All of these choices are correct

Question #3
Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 14 MHz band?
A. Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
B. Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
C. Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
D. Effective radiated power cannot exceed 3000 watts

Question #4
When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician Class licensee and have a CSCE for General Class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its Web site?
A. Whenever you operate using General Class frequency privileges
B. Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
C. Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
D. A special identifier is not required as long as your General Class license application has been filed with the FCC

Question #5
When may a 10 meter repeater retransmit the 2 meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?
A. Under no circumstances
B. Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
C. Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
D. Only if the 10 meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license

Question #6
Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160, 75, and 40 meter bands?
A. Upper sideband
B. Lower sideband
C. Vestigial sideband
D. Double sideband

Question #7
What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?
A. Continue your communication because you were on frequency first
B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
C. Change to a different frequency
D. Immediately cease all transmissions

Question #8
When sending CW, what does a C mean when added to the RST report?
A. Chirpy or unstable signal
B. Report was read from S meter reading rather than estimated
C. 100 percent copy
D. Key clicks

Question #9
When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?
A. Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
C. When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English
D. Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union

Question #10
In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?
A. The receiver is requesting the packet be re-transmitted
B. The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
C. The receiver is busy decoding the packet
D. The entire file has been received correctly

Question #11
At what point in the solar cycle does the 20 meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
A. At the summer solstice
B. Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle
C. Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle
D. At any point in the solar cycle

Question #12
What does MUF stand for?
A. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
C. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
D. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period

Question #13
Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz?
A. The F2 layer
B. The F1 layer
C. The E layer
D. The D layer

Question #14
What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?
A. Automatic transmit/receive switching
B. Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
C. VOX operation
D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

Question #15
What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?
A. Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
B. Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
C. Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable
D. Determining the gain of a directional antenna

Question #16
What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?
A. Connect all equipment grounds together
B. Install an RF filter in series with the ground wire
C. Use a ground loop for best conductivity
D. Install a few ferrite beads on the ground wire where it connects to your station

Question #17
Where is an S meter found?
A. In a receiver
B. In an SWR bridge
C. In a transmitter
D. In a conductance bridge

Question #18
Which of the following is the most likely to cause interfering signals to be heard in the receiver of an HF mobile installation in a recent model vehicle?
A. The battery charging system
B. The anti-lock braking system
C. The anti-theft circuitry
D. The vehicle control computer

Question #19
Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?
A. Conductance
B. Reluctance
C. Reactance
D. Admittance

Question #20
What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?
A. 8.5 volts
B. 12 volts
C. 24 volts
D. 34 volts

Question #21
Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?
A. A capacitor in series
B. A resistor in parallel
C. An inductor in parallel
D. An inductor in series

Question #22
Why would it be important to minimize the mutual inductance between two inductors?
A. To increase the energy transfer between circuits
B. To reduce unwanted coupling between circuits
C. To reduce conducted emissions
D. To increase the self-resonant frequency of the inductors

Question #23
What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?
A. 0.1 volt
B. 0.3 volts
C. 0.7 volts
D. 1.0 volts

Question #24
What is a microprocessor?
A. A low power analog signal processor used as a microwave detector
B. A computer on a single integrated circuit
C. A microwave detector, amplifier, and local oscillator on a single integrated circuit
D. A low voltage amplifier used in a microwave transmitter modulator stage

Question #25
What safety feature does a power-supply bleeder resistor provide?
A. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
B. It discharges the filter capacitors
C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
D. It eliminates ground-loop current

Question #26
What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?
A. To limit the modulation index
B. To eliminate self-oscillations
C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
D. To keep the carrier on frequency

Question #27
What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?
A. Product detector
B. Phase inverter
C. Mixer
D. Discriminator

Question #28
What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF power amplifier?
A. Multiplex modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Amplitude modulation
D. Pulse modulation

Question #29
What does the number 31 represent in PSK31?
A. The approximate transmitted symbol rate
B. The version of the PSK protocol
C. The year in which PSK31 was invented
D. The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31

Question #30
What standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 200-ohm impedance?
A. 4:1
B. 1:4
C. 2:1
D. 1:2

Question #31
How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered from 1/4 wave above ground?
A. It steadily increases
B. It steadily decreases
C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
D. It is unaffected by the height above ground

Question #32
What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?
A. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
C. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

Question #33
Which of the following is an advantage of an NVIS antenna?
A. Low vertical angle radiation for working stations out to ranges of several thousand kilometers
B. High vertical angle radiation for working stations within a radius of a few hundred kilometers
C. High forward gain
D. All of these choices are correct

Question #34
What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?
A. Change from horizontal polarization to vertical polarization
B. Change from horizontal polarization to circular polarization
C. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
D. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction

Question #35
Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?
A. It prevents blowing of fuses in case of an internal short circuit
B. It prevents signal overload
C. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

********************Answer Key for your Test*******************

Question #1
G1A11 - (D)
Question #2
G1B08 - (D)
Question #3
G1C04 - (A)
Question #4
G1D06 - (A)
Question #5
G1E02 - (D)
Question #6
G2A02 - (B)
Question #7
G2B02 - (B)
Question #8
G2C07 - (A)
Question #9
G2D05 - (B)
Question #10
G2E13 - (A)
Question #11
G3A07 - (D)
Question #12
G3B08 - (B)
Question #13
G3C12 - (D)
Question #14
G4A10 - (B)
Question #15
G4B13 - (C)
Question #16
G4C07 - (A)
Question #17
G4D06 - (A)
Question #18
G4E07 - (D)
Question #19
G5A04 - (C)
Question #20
G5B09 - (B)
Question #21
G5C14 - (D)
Question #22
G6A11 - (B)
Question #23
G6B05 - (C)
Question #24
G6C11 - (B)
Question #25
G7A01 - (B)
Question #26
G7B13 - (B)
Question #27
G7C08 - (D)
Question #28
G8A04 - (B)
Question #29
G8B10 - (A)
Question #30
G9A09 - (A)
Question #31
G9B07 - (B)
Question #32
G9C08 - (D)
Question #33
G9D02 - (B)
Question #34
G0A10 - (D)
Question #35
G0B06 - (D)