General Practice Exam 35 Questions, valid until June 30th, 2015

The Genesee County Radio Club Holds VE Test Sessions on the
3rd Saturday of each month (except for May) at 9:30am
Baker College off Bristol Road in Flint, MI

General Schematic

Answers are at bottom of page...

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Question #1
When General Class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?
A. The lower frequency end
B. The upper frequency end
C. The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
D. The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

Question #2
When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest?
A. When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis
B. Only when there is no other means of communications readily available
C. When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of any item with a monetary value less than $200 and such activity is not done on a regular basis
D. Never

Question #3
Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 14 MHz band?
A. Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used
B. Power must be limited to 200 watts when transmitting between 14.100 MHz and 14.150 MHz
C. Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
D. Effective radiated power cannot exceed 3000 watts

Question #4
Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class operator examination?
A. At least three VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present
B. At least two VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present
C. At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be VEC accredited
D. At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must be present

Question #5
What portion of the 10 meter band is available for repeater use?
A. The entire band
B. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
C. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
D. The portion above 29.5 MHz

Question #6
Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?
A. Very high fidelity voice modulation
B. Less bandwidth used and higher power efficiency
C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D. Less subject to static crashes (atmospherics)

Question #7
When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?
A. When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency
B. When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications
C. Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting
D. When the Presidentís War Emergency Powers have been invoked

Question #8
What does the Q signal "QRQ" mean?
A. Slow down
B. Send faster
C. Zero beat my signal
D. Quitting operation

Question #9
What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?
A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

Question #10
Which of the following describes Baudot code?
A. A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits
B. A code using error detection and correction
C. A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
D. A code using SELCAL and LISTEN

Question #11
What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity?
A. Aurora that can reflect VHF signals
B. Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
C. Improved HF long path propagation
D. Reduced long delayed echoes

Question #12
What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) and above the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) when they are sent into the ionosphere?
A. They are bent back to the Earth
B. They pass through the ionosphere
C. They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
D. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

Question #13
What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
A. They have high intelligibility
B. They have a wavering sound
C. They have very large swings in signal strength
D. All of these choices are correct

Question #14
What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?
A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
D. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band

Question #15
Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?
A. It improves the frequency response
B. It decreases battery consumption in the meter
C. It improves the resolution of the readings
D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

Question #16
What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B. On-and-off humming or clicking
C. Distorted speech
D. Clearly audible speech

Question #17
Where is an S meter found?
A. In a receiver
B. In an SWR bridge
C. In a transmitter
D. In a conductance bridge

Question #18
Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?
A. The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
B. The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
C. A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
D. All of these choices are correct

Question #19
What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?
A. To minimize transmitter power output
B. To maximize the transfer of power
C. To reduce power supply ripple
D. To minimize radiation resistance

Question #20
What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?
A. 10.9%
B. 12.2%
C. 20.5%
D. 25.9%

Question #21
What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor in parallel?
A. 5.9 ohms
B. 0.17 ohms
C. 10000 ohms
D. 80 ohms

Question #22
Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor?
A. Tight tolerance
B. Non-polarized
C. High capacitance for given volume
D. Inexpensive RF capacitor

Question #23
What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries?
A. Long life
B. High discharge current
C. High voltage
D. Rapid recharge

Question #24
What two devices in an Amateur Radio station might be connected using a USB interface?
A. Computer and transceiver
B. Microphone and transceiver
C. Amplifier and antenna
D. Power supply and amplifier

Question #25
Which of the following components are used in a power-supply filter network?
A. Diodes
B. Transformers and transducers
C. Quartz crystals
D. Capacitors and inductors

Question #26
Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals?
A. Binary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent with an "on" or "off" state
B. The binary number system is most accurate
C. Binary numbers are more compatible with analog circuitry
D. All of these choices are correct

Question #27
How is Digital Signal Processor filtering accomplished?
A. By using direct signal phasing
B. By converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing
C. By differential spurious phasing
D. By converting the signal from digital to analog and taking the difference of mixing products

Question #28
What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?
A. Frequency shift keying
B. Pulse position modulation
C. Frequency modulation
D. Amplitude modulation

Question #29
What is the total bandwidth of an FM-phone transmission having a 5 kHz deviation and a 3 kHz modulating frequency?
A. 3 kHz
B. 5 kHz
C. 8 kHz
D. 16 kHz

Question #30
What would be the SWR if you feed a vertical antenna that has a 25-ohm feed-point impedance with 50-ohm coaxial cable?
A. 2:1
B. 2.5:1
C. 1.25:1
D. You cannot determine SWR from impedance values

Question #31
What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a quarter wave ground-plane antenna?
A. They lower the radiation angle
B. They bring the feed-point impedance closer to 300 ohms
C. They increase the radiation angle
D. They bring the feed-point impedance closer to 50 ohms

Question #32
Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?
A. The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element
B. The director is normally the shortest parasitic element
C. The driven element is the longest parasitic element
D. Low feed-point impedance increases bandwidth

Question #33
Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?
A. Length and spacing of the elements increases logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
B. Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
C. Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
D. SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length

Question #34
What precaution should you take whenever you make adjustments or repairs to an antenna?
A. Ensure that you and the antenna structure are grounded
B. Turn off the transmitter and disconnect the feed line
C. Wear a radiation badge
D. All of these choices are correct

Question #35
Which of the following is good engineering practice for lightning protection grounds?
A. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
B. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
C. Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
D. They must be bonded together with all other grounds

********************Answer Key for your Test*******************

Question #1
G1A12 - (B)
Question #2
G1B09 - (A)
Question #3
G1C04 - (A)
Question #4
G1D04 - (A)
Question #5
G1E10 - (D)
Question #6
G2A06 - (B)
Question #7
G2B10 - (D)
Question #8
G2C10 - (B)
Question #9
G2D01 - (A)
Question #10
G2E05 - (C)
Question #11
G3A16 - (A)
Question #12
G3B05 - (A)
Question #13
G3C06 - (B)
Question #14
G4A01 - (B)
Question #15
G4B05 - (D)
Question #16
G4C03 - (C)
Question #17
G4D06 - (A)
Question #18
G4E11 - (C)
Question #19
G5A12 - (B)
Question #20
G5B10 - (C)
Question #21
G5C15 - (A)
Question #22
G6A04 - (C)
Question #23
G6B13 - (B)
Question #24
G6C10 - (A)
Question #25
G7A02 - (D)
Question #26
G7B02 - (A)
Question #27
G7C10 - (B)
Question #28
G8A05 - (D)
Question #29
G8B06 - (D)
Question #30
G9A12 - (A)
Question #31
G9B02 - (D)
Question #32
G9C03 - (B)
Question #33
G9D07 - (A)
Question #34
G0A12 - (B)
Question #35
G0B11 - (D)