General Practice Exam 35 Questions, valid until June 30th, 2015

The Genesee County Radio Club Holds VE Test Sessions on the
3rd Saturday of each month (except for May) at 9:30am
Baker College off Bristol Road in Flint, MI

General Schematic

Answers are at bottom of page...

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Question #1
G1A06
Which of the following frequencies is in the 12 meter band?
A. 3.940 MHz
B. 12.940 MHz
C. 17.940 MHz
D. 24.940 MHz


Question #2
G1B01
What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?
A. 50 feet
B. 100 feet
C. 200 feet
D. 300 feet


Question #3
G1C01
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 1000 watts PEP output
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. 2000 watts PEP output


Question #4
G1D04
Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class operator examination?
A. At least three VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present
B. At least two VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present
C. At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be VEC accredited
D. At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must be present


Question #5
G1E07
With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications?
A. Countries in ITU Region 2
B. Countries in ITU Region 1
C. Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country
D. Any country which is not a member of the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)


Question #6
G2A08
Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?
A. Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations
C. Say "Break. Break. Break." and wait for a response
D. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station


Question #7
G2B05
What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?
A. Between 150 and 500 Hz
B. Approximately 3 kHz
C. Approximately 6 kHz
D. Approximately 10 kHz


Question #8
G2C08
What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?
A. SK
B. BK
C. AR
D. KN


Question #9
G2D09
What information is traditionally contained in a station log?
A. Date and time of contact
B. Band and/or frequency of the contact
C. Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given
D. All of these choices are correct


Question #10
G2E09
In what segment of the 20 meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?
A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B. At the top of the SSB phone segment near 14.325 MHz
C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D. Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz


Question #11
G3A09
What effect do high sunspot numbers have on radio communications?
A. High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted
B. Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication
C. Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced
D. Microwave communications become unstable


Question #12
G3B11
What happens to HF propagation when the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) exceeds the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)?
A. No HF radio frequency will support ordinary skywave communications over the path
B. HF communications over the path are enhanced
C. Double hop propagation along the path is more common
D. Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced


Question #13
G3C06
What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?
A. They have high intelligibility
B. They have a wavering sound
C. They have very large swings in signal strength
D. All of these choices are correct


Question #14
G4A01
What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?
A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
D. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band


Question #15
G4B13
What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?
A. Measuring the front to back ratio of an antenna
B. Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
C. Determining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable
D. Determining the gain of a directional antenna


Question #16
G4C05
What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?
A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C. The ground rod is resonant
D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency


Question #17
G4D04
What does an S meter measure?
A. Conductance
B. Impedance
C. Received signal strength
D. Transmitter power output


Question #18
G4E11
Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?
A. The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
B. The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
C. A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
D. All of these choices are correct


Question #19
G5A12
What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?
A. To minimize transmitter power output
B. To maximize the transfer of power
C. To reduce power supply ripple
D. To minimize radiation resistance


Question #20
G5B02
How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a parallel circuit?
A. It equals the average of each branch current
B. It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
C. It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
D. It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop


Question #21
G5C13
Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
A. An inductor in series
B. A resistor in series
C. A capacitor in parallel
D. A capacitor in series


Question #22
G6A12
What is a common name for an inductor used to help smooth the DC output from the rectifier in a conventional power supply?
A. Back EMF choke
B. Repulsion coil
C. Charging inductor
D. Filter choke


Question #23
G6B11
Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics?
A. A bipolar transistor
B. A Field Effect Transistor
C. A tunnel diode
D. A varistor


Question #24
G6C13
Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF service at frequencies up to 150 MHz?
A. Octal
B. RJ-11
C. PL-259
D. DB-25


Question #25
G7A02
Which of the following components are used in a power-supply filter network?
A. Diodes
B. Transformers and transducers
C. Quartz crystals
D. Capacitors and inductors


Question #26
G7B04
Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?
A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
D. Output is low only when both inputs are high


Question #27
G7C03
What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator and send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?
A. Balanced modulator
B. IF amplifier
C. Mixer
D. Detector


Question #28
G8A02
What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information?
A. Phase convolution
B. Phase modulation
C. Angle convolution
D. Radian inversion


Question #29
G8B11
How does forward error correction allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?
A. By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
B. By using the varicode character set
C. By transmitting redundant information with the data
D. By using a parity bit with each character


Question #30
G9A03
What is the characteristic impedance of flat ribbon TV type twinlead?
A. 50 ohms
B. 75 ohms
C. 100 ohms
D. 300 ohms


Question #31
G9B10
What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?
A. 8 feet
B. 16 feet
C. 24 feet
D. 32 feet


Question #32
G9C07
What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction
D. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain


Question #33
G9D03
At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?
A. As close to one-half wave as possible
B. As close to one wavelength as possible
C. Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
D. Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength


Question #34
G0A13
What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?
A. It should not be installed higher than you can reach
B. It should not be installed in a wet area
C. It should limited to 10 feet in height
D. It should be installed so no one can be exposed to RF radiation in excess of maximum permissible limits


Question #35
G0B09
Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?
A. The resistance of solder is too high
B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
C. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike


********************Answer Key for your Test*******************

Question #1
G1A06 - (D)
Question #2
G1B01 - (C)
Question #3
G1C01 - (A)
Question #4
G1D04 - (A)
Question #5
G1E07 - (C)
Question #6
G2A08 - (B)
Question #7
G2B05 - (B)
Question #8
G2C08 - (C)
Question #9
G2D09 - (D)
Question #10
G2E09 - (D)
Question #11
G3A09 - (C)
Question #12
G3B11 - (A)
Question #13
G3C06 - (B)
Question #14
G4A01 - (B)
Question #15
G4B13 - (C)
Question #16
G4C05 - (D)
Question #17
G4D04 - (C)
Question #18
G4E11 - (C)
Question #19
G5A12 - (B)
Question #20
G5B02 - (C)
Question #21
G5C13 - (C)
Question #22
G6A12 - (D)
Question #23
G6B11 - (B)
Question #24
G6C13 - (C)
Question #25
G7A02 - (D)
Question #26
G7B04 - (C)
Question #27
G7C03 - (C)
Question #28
G8A02 - (B)
Question #29
G8B11 - (C)
Question #30
G9A03 - (D)
Question #31
G9B10 - (D)
Question #32
G9C07 - (C)
Question #33
G9D03 - (D)
Question #34
G0A13 - (D)
Question #35
G0B09 - (D)